ccna 3 discovery modul 6

1
What is the default setting for the mode LED on a switch?

*** STAT

FDUP

UTIL

100

PORT



2
An old workstation has been replaced with a new one. The workgroup switch is not learning the MAC address of the new workstation. A network technician has verified that a static MAC address is not configured on the attached switch port. Which commands can the technician issue at the switch CLI to further troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two.)

*** Switch# show port security

Switch# show version

Switch# show startup-config

*** Switch# clear mac-address-table

Switch# reload

Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat



3
Which files must be deleted in order to completely remove an existing configuration from a Cisco 2950 switch? (Choose two.)

flash:c2950-c3h2s-mz.120-5-3.WC.1.bin

running-config

VLAN.bin

*** startup-config

c2950-c3h2s-mz.120-5-3.WC.1.dat

*** VLAN.dat



4
Which type of cable is used to connect to the console port on a switch?

a crossover cable

a patch cable

*** a rollover cable

a straight-thru cable



5
A workstation on a switched Ethernet LAN is to be upgraded with a new Fast Ethernet NIC. What should be done to ensure that the workstation will be able to gain access to the network?

delete the configuration file from the switch and reload IOS

*** deactivate port security on the port until the new host has connected to the network

remove the host from the the management VLAN until the new MAC address has been learned by the switch

delete the VLAN.dat file from flash and reboot the switch

configure the attached switch port for full-duplex mode



6
What does an amber system LED indicate about a Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)

*** The switch has power.

The switch has passed POST and is working properly.

*** The switch has failed POST.

The switch is going through POST.

The switch is in the process of initializing its ports.



7
What must be done in order to initiate the password recovery procedure on a Catalyst 2900 series switch?

Rename the Flash file.

Enter the setup program by deleting the switch configuration file and rebooting the switch.

*** Hold down the MODE button during switch startup.

Wait for the STAT LED to turn green while holding down the Break key.

Hold down the Ctrl-Break keys during switch startup.



8
From which switch command mode can the configure command be used?

config

user EXEC

*** privileged EXEC

command EXEC

flash



9
Which form of switch command-line help displays a list of keywords and arguments that are associated with a command entered at the CLI prompt?

CLI help

*** command syntax help

keyword help

word help



10
What is the name of the series of tests that execute every time a switch is powered on?

RPS

bootstrap

*** power-on self test

system STAT

pre-boot



11
A new policy for disaster recovery requires copying all critical network configurations and operating systems to a backup server that will be stored offsite. Which command will create a backup of the switch IOS image on the server?

Switch# copy tftp NVRAM

Switch# copy running-config tftp

*** Switch# copy flash tftp

Switch# copy IOS tftp

Switch# copy tftp flash

Switch# copy NVRAM tftp



12


The network administrator shown in the graphic is connected to Switch3 over Ethernet. The administrator needs to verify configuration settings on the newly installed Switch2. What conditions need to be met in order for the administrator to access Switch2 with a web browser? (Choose three.)

*** complete IP addressing configured on Switch2

*** Privileged EXEC mode password configured on Switch2

hostname configured on Switch2

management VLAN password set

*** HTTP service activated on Switch2

adminstrator host connectivity to the Switch2 management VLAN



13
Which protocol is used to copy a new IOS image to a Catalyst switch during the upgrade procedure?

HTTP

Telnet

*** TFTP

TTY

IOS



14
What color is the System LED if the switch fails the POST?

*** amber

green

red

white

off



15
Although the backup configuration file on a Catalyst 2950 switch has been erased, it is found that VLANs are still configured in the switch. What must be done to clear the configured VLANs?

*** The vlan.dat file must be erased and the switch reloaded.

The switch flash memory must be purged and the switch rebooted.

The vlan.cfg file must be renamed and IOS restarted.

Each VLAN needs to be deleted individually and the configuration saved.

The switch needs to be restarted, because the old running configuration is still in memory.



16
How can a switch be configured to prevent unauthorized hosts from access to a network? (Choose three.)

*** Host MAC addresses can be statically assigned to each switch port.

Layer 2 access control lists can be used to prevent unauthorized network access.

*** Unused ports can be shutdown.

Passwords and usernames can be set for each Ethernet switch port.

Unused switch ports can be assigned to the management VLAN.

*** Port security can be activated to allow only the host with the first MAC address learned on a port to access the network.



17
Which switch command mode should always be password protected?

User Command

User Config

User EXEC

User Privileged

*** Privileged EXEC



18
Which options are available when setting the action to be taken when a port security violation occurs on a switch port? (Choose two.)

log-allow

return

*** trap

*** shutdown

poison



19
Which commands can be used to change from Global Configuration mode to Privileged EXEC mode? (Choose three.)

*** Ctrl+z

disable

*** end

*** exit

logout



20
What are the recommended HyperTerminal configuration settings for establishing a console session between a switch console port and PC COM port? (Choose three.)

*** 9600 bits per second

192000 bits per second

hardware flow control

*** flow control Xon/Xoff

even parity

*** no parity



21
Which methods can be used to perform the initial configuration of a new switch? (Choose two.)

copy a configuration from a FTP server

*** type commands manually after entering the Privileged EXEC mode

*** enter the System Configuration dialog

Telnet to a local server to copy a configuration file

connect to the switch using a web browser



22
An administrator is using the switch help facility to find the command elements available to the configure command. What would the user type at the command prompt to display the next set of arguments available in the syntax for this command?

Switch# c?

Switch# c ?

Switch# configure?

*** Switch# configure ?



23
How long will a host MAC address remain in the address table of a switch after the host has been turned off or moved to another device?

30 seconds

180 seconds

*** 300 seconds

30 minutes



24
After powering up a switch, the network technician notices that the system LED is amber. What can the technician assume? (Choose two.)

The switch is negotiating full or half-duplex mode.

The switch has completed negotiating 10 or 100 Mbps speed.

*** The POST has failed.

The boot sequence is in process.

*** A fatal error has occurred.

The switch is operating properly and is ready for service.



25
A group of hosts has been connected to a new Fast Ethernet switch. Which of the following statements describe this newly created LAN, if the new switch has not yet been configured? (Choose three.)

*** The hosts will negotiate 10 Mbps or 100 Mbps bandwidth with the switch, as required by their NICs.

The hosts will be in separate broadcast domains.

*** All of the hosts will be in the same VLAN.

Hosts with 10 Mbps NICs will be unable to communicate with the network.

*** All of the hosts should be able to send and receive ARP messages from each other.

All of the hosts connected by Ethernet can manage the switch over Telnet or HTTP.



When the copy tftp flash command is used to upgrade the IOS on a switch, which symbol indicates that the image was copied successfully?

e

*

*** !

s

#

ccna 3 discovery modul 5

Which of the following are requirements of LAN design? (Choose three.)

*** adaptability

*** manageability

operability

*** scalability

stability

When designing a LAN, at which layer of the OSI model does the process of segmenting collision domains occur?

Layer 1

*** Layer 2

Layer 4

Layer 7

Which of the following affect network availability? (Choose three.)

*** throughput

*** response time

workstation speed

*** access to resources

desktop applications

What type of cabling is specified by TIA/EIA standards for interconnection of Intermediate and Main Distribution Facilities?

patch cables of variable lengths

horizontal cross-connect cabling

*** vertical cross-connect cabling

parallel cross-connect cabling

Which of the following are features of the access layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose two.)

inter-VLAN routing

*** Layer 2 filtering

Layer 3 filtering

*** microsegmentation

bandwidth security

A distribution layer switch operates at which OSI layers? (Choose two.)

access

*** data link

*** network

internet

transport



Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is often referred to as the backbone?

access

distribution

network

*** core

workgroup

WAN

At which layer of the hierarchical design model do users connect to the network?

application

*** access

distribution

network

core

Which hierarchical design model layer is responsible for containing network problems to the workgroups in which they occur?

application

access

*** distribution

network

core

Which of the following are characteristics of the core layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose three.)

*** redundant paths

high-level policy enforcement

packet manipulation

media transitions

*** rapid forwarding of traffic

*** no packet filtering

What is the primary reason for implementing security and policy routing at the distribution layer?

filtering of core switching errors

*** preventing policy and security issues from burdening the core layer

preventing unnecessary security policy decisions from burdening the access layer

maintaining a consistent three-layer security policy

isolating the access layer from traffic destined for other networks





A major network upgrade that was designed to improve speed and reliability has recently been completed. Users in one part of the network are experiencing dramatically decreased throughput and loss of connectivity. Which of the LAN design goals was not met for these users?

*** functionality

sustainability

adaptability

manageability

scalability

To reduce cost on a new network design, administrators select switches that initially will have 100 Mbps interface modules installed but will also have the ability to support 1000 Mbps interface modules. Which of the LAN design goals are being utilized? (Choose two.)

sustainability

reliability

manageability

*** adaptability

functionality

*** scalability

What will increase the number of broadcast domains in a network? (Choose two.)

replacing hubs with switches

*** segmenting the network by installing a router

*** creating VLANs for each workgroup

adding additional hubs to the local area network

replacing routers with LAN switches

adding bridges to connect different workgroups

Where should DNS and email servers be located?

IDF

*** MDF

HCC

VCC

POP

Which LAN standard uses CSMA/CD as its access method?

FDDI

*** Ethernet

Wireless

Token Ring



VLAN1 and VLAN2 have been configured on a switch. What must be done for hosts on VLAN1 to communicate with hosts on VLAN2?

VLAN overlapping must be enabled on the switch.

The MAC address must be added to the ARP table in the switch.

*** A router must be configured to allow routing between the VLANs.

An entry in the switching table must be configured for each VLAN.

Communication between VLANs is automatically enabled on switches

A network administrator needs to increase bandwidth and reduce traffic on a network. What should be used in the access layer of the hierarchical network design model to dedicate bandwidth to users while limiting broadcast domains?

one router with multiple fast Ethernet interfaces

multiple routers with Fast Ethernet interfaces

multi-port gigabit switches

*** switches running VLANs

managed smart hubs

Which devices are considered acceptable for creating more connection points at the end of horizontal cable runs? (Choose two.)

*** hubs

bridges

*** switches

routers

Why is it important that the data carrying capacity of vertical cabling be greater than that of the horizontal cable?

Vertical cabling is reserved for high bandwith video conferencing.

Vertical cabling carries traffic from the IDF to the user.

Vertical cabling carries traffic from the enterprise out to the Internet.

*** Vertical cabling carries traffic from multiple areas of the network.

Layer-three packets move faster through vertical cabling

ccna 3 discovery modul 3

1
Why would it be necessary to configure the bandwidth setting on an EIGRP interface rather than leaving it at the default setting? (Choose two.)

*** A suboptimal route may be chosen as the best path to a destination if the bandwidth setting is higher than the actual bandwidth of the link.

*** The network may be unable to converge if the bandwidth setting does not match the actual bandwidth of the link.

Routing updates might arrive too fast for the interface to handle and be discarded because of buffer overflow.

The configured bandwidth must match the actual speed of the link so the link will operate properly.

Setting the bandwidth to a higher rate will optimize the effective throughput of the link.



2
In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination? (Choose two.)

*** routing

*** topology

neighbor

path

shortest path



3
Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?

Bounded updates are sent to all routers within an autonomous system.

*** Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.

The updates are sent to all routers in the routing table.

Updates are bounded by the routers in the topology table.



4
Which Layer 4 protocol does EIGRP use to provide reliability for the transmission of routing information?

DUAL

IP

PDM

*** RTP

TCP

UDP



5
Which command will help identify established OSPF neighbor adjacencies?

router# show ospf neighbor

router# debug neighbor events

router# debug ip ospf neighbor

*** router# show ip ospf neighbor



6
Which router command can be used to identify traffic bottlenecks or locate broken network connections on the path to a destination?

telnet

ping

debug

*** trace

show



7
Which of the following statements are true of routers that are running EIGRP? (Choose three.)

*** They can support multiple routed protocols.

They maintain a complex topology database that describes the entire network.

They send their entire routing table to neighboring routers.

*** They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.

They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.

*** They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.



8
A LAN has been found to be unreachable in an enterprise network that is routing IGRP. Which commands can be used to check the IGRP configuration of the router attached to the unreachable network? (Choose three.)

router# debug igrp

*** router# show ip route

router# show protocols

*** router# show ip protocols

router# show interfaces serial

*** router# show running-configuration



9
A technician has accidentally disconnected an Ethernet cable from a router to a network that is advertised by IGRP. IGRP has issued a triggered update alerting other routers in the enterprise that the network is unreachable. What is the minimum amount of time that will elapse before the other routers will be able to use this network after it is reconnected, assuming default timer settings?

200 seconds

240 seconds

*** 280 seconds

320 seconds



10
Which of the following router commands is recommended only for troubleshooting specific types of network problems, not for monitoring normal network operation?

show

list

*** debug

terminal monitor



11


Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)

R1(config-router)# network 192.168.1.128

R1(config-router)# auto-summary

*** R1(config-router)# no auto-summary

*** R2(config-router)# no auto-summary

R2(config-router)# auto-summary

R2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.64



12
What is the default administrative distance of EIGRP internal routes?

70

*** 90

100

110

120

255



13
What type of command will allow an administrator to check normal router behavior?

*** show commands

list commands

debug commands

ICMP commands

terminal monitor commands



14
Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)

*** routes learned from other routing protocols

*** routes learned from any non-adjacent EIGRP routers

any route with a hop count metric higher than 224

EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems

all passive routes in the routing table



15
Which of the following are found in the EIGRP neighbor table? (Choose two.)

routes installed by DUAL

lowest calculated metric to each destination

*** network layer address of the neighbor routers

*** number of EIGRP packets waiting to be sent

feasible distance to each neighbor



16
What tables does EIGRP maintain for each routed protocol it supports? (Choose three.)

adjacency table

*** topology table

*** neighbor table

*** routing table

link state table

ARP table



17
What is the EIGRP term for a backup route?

backup route

default route

*** feasible successor route

gateway

secondary route

successor route



18


One part of the network shown in the graphic uses IGRP and another part uses EIGRP. Which of the following statements are true about this network? (Choose two.)

IP traffic will not be routable from network 192.168.1.0 to network 10.1.1.0.

The routers using IGRP will scale the EIGRP routing metrics by 256.

*** The route to network 192.168.1.0 will be tagged as external by the EIGRP routers.

*** The routers in the EIGRP network will convert the 24-bit IGRP metrics to 32-bit EIGRP metrics.

The autonmous system number in the IGRP network must be converted to an EIGRP AS number.

The IGRP router will classify routes learned from the EIGRP routers as internal.



19
Which command will display only the current EIGRP routing table entries?

Router# show ip route

*** Router# show ip route eigrp

Router# show eigrp route

Router# show eigrp protocol



20
What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)

*** the routing protocol

*** the feasible distance of the route

the highest cost of the route

the SRTT value for the route

*** the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router

the physical address of the gateway interface



21
What must be configured for IGRP and EIGRP to automatically share and redistribute information?

identical maximum hop limits

load balancing

identical autonomous system numbers

*** automatic protocol redistribution



22
What is the advantage of routers forming adjacencies when using EIGRP? (Choose three.)

Neighbor routers can quickly take over for a router that is in passive mode.

*** New routers and their routes can quickly be discovered by neighbor routers.

A router can share routing loads with neighbor routers.

*** A router can quickly discover when a neighbor router is no longer available.

*** Changes in network topology can quickly be shared with neighbor routers.

Neighbor routers can save overhead by sharing their DUAL databases.



23
Which router command will enable IGRP with an autonomous system number of 100?

router(config)# igrp 100

router(config)# router 100

*** router(config)# router igrp 100

router(config)# router igrp

ccna 3 discovery modul 4

1	What is a characteristic of a classful routing protocol on the network? All subnets are seen by all routers. CIDR addresses are advertised. A subnet can be further subnetted down and advertised correctly. Updates received by a router in a different major network have the default mask applied.
2	How does a router keep track of which inside local address is used when NAT overload is configured? The router adds an additional bit to the source IP address and maintains a separate table. The router modifies the QoS field. The router uses TCP or UDP port numbers. The router uses a manual entry that is created and maintained in the database of the router.

3	Which two IP addresses represent the network and broadcast addresses for the network that includes host 192.168.100.130/27? (Choose two.) network 192.168.100.0 network 192.168.100.128 network 192.168.100.130 broadcast 192.168.100.157 broadcast 192.168.100.159 broadcast 192.168.100.255
4	What range of networks are summarized by the address and mask, 192.168.32.0/19? 192.168.0.0/24 - 192.168.32.0/24 192.168.0.0/24 - 192.168.31.0/24 192.168.32.0/24 – 192.168.64.0/24 192.168.32.0/24 – 192.168.63.0/24

5	Refer to the exhibit. Host A is assigned an IP address of 10.118.197.55/20. How many additional networked devices will this subnetwork support? 253 509 1021 2045 4093
6	How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is configured with the following commands? Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209.165.201.23 209.165.201.30 netmask 255.255.255.224 Router(config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME 7 8 9 10 24 31

7	What are two benefits of implementing a VLSM addressing scheme? (Choose two.) allows efficient use of address space supports hierarchical addressing capability supports only one subnet mask length throughout the entire network allows efficient use of larger routing tables to eliminate the need for route summarization solves the problem of discontiguous networks with classful routing protocols
8	Which two statements differentiate between flat and hierarchical networks? (Choose two.) In a hierarchical design, the network consists of all Layer 2 devices. In a hierarchical design, a network consists of a single broadcast domain. In a flat network, all hosts can be reached without having to pass through a router. In a flat network, hosts using multiple broadcast domains pass through routers. In a hierarchical design, a network is divided into layers to reduce congestion and the size of failure domains.

9	What two pieces of information can be determined from the host IP address of 192.168.2.93/29? (Choose two.) The number of bits borrowed for the subnetwork is 5. The number of usable hosts for each subnetwork is 14. The /29 translates to a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248. The network address for this host is 192.168.2.80/29. The broadcast address for this network is 192.168.2.94/29.
10	Refer to the exhibit. Which two IP addresses could be assigned to the hosts that are shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.) 192.168.65.31 192.168.65.32 192.168.65.35 192.168.65.60 192.168.65.63 192.168.65.64

11	Refer to the exhibit. What solution would solve the discontiguous network problem and prevent the routers from advertising misleading networks? Turn automatic summarization off and manually summarize the routes at the classful boundary. Allow automatic summarization to send the most optimal route. Change the routing protocol to a classless routing protocol, such as RIPv1. Change the LAN addressing schemes on R2 and R3 to use VLSM since it supports discontiguous networks.
12	When configuring NAT on a Cisco router, what is the inside local IP address? the IP address of an inside host as it appears to the outside network the IP address of an outside host as it appears to the inside network the IP address of an inside host as it appears to the inside network the configured IP address assigned to a host in the outside network

13	When running NAT, what is the purpose of address overloading? limit the number of hosts that can connect to the WAN allow multiple inside addresses to share a single global address force hosts to wait for an available address allow an outside host to share inside global addresses
14	Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show ip nat translations command, which kind of address translation is in effect on this router? static public overload private

15	Refer to the exhibit. Which address is an inside global address? 10.1.1.1 10.1.1.2 198.18.1.55 64.100.0.1

16	What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.) reduced routing table size dynamic address assignment automatic route redistribution reduced routing update traffic automatic summarization at classful boundaries
17	Refer to the graphic. A technician is investigating why H1 and H2 cannot communicate. What problem should the technician discover? Sw1 has an incorrect default gateway. H1 and H2 are on different subnetworks. Sw1 needs an IP address assigned in the same subnetwork. The H2 IP address should be changed to 192.168.22.34/28.

18	A network engineer is implementing a network design using VLSM for network 192.168.1.0/24. After subnetting the network, the engineer has decided to take one of the subnets, 192.168.1.16/28 and subnet it further to provide for point-to-point serial link addresses. What is the maximum number of subnets that can be created from the 192.168.1.16/28 subnet for serial connections? 1 2 4 6 8 16
19	Which two addresses could be used as private IP addresses in a LAN? (Choose two.) 10.10.1.200 172.31.100.254 172.64.10.10 192.165.2.1 192.169.1.1

20	A network administrator is asked to design a new addressing scheme for a corporate network. Presently, there are 500 users at the head office, 200 users at sales, 425 at manufacturing, and 50 at the research site. Which statement defines the correct VLSM addressing map with minimal waste using the 172.16.0.0/16 network? 172.16.0.0/20 head office 172.16.1.0/21 manufacturing 172.16.1.0/22 sales 172.16.3.0/26 research 172.16.48.0/19 head office 172.16.16.0/20 manufacturing 172.16.48.128 sales 172.16.48.0/26 research 172.16.0.0/23 head office 172.16.2.0/23 manufacturing 172.16.4.0/24 sales 172.16.5.0/26 research 172.16.2.0/22 head office 172.16.3.0/23 manufacturing 172.16.4.0/26 sales 172.16.4.128/25 research
21	Refer to the exhibit. Which two are valid VLSM network addresses for the serial link between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.) 192.168.1.4/30 192.168.1.8/30 192.168.1.90/30 192.168.1.101/30 192.168.1.190/30

22	A network technician has been asked to implement a hierarchical addressing scheme. Which two statements could describe the hierarchical addressing scheme structure to the technician? (Choose two.) A hierarchical addressing structure logically groups networks into smaller subnetworks. A hierarchical network operates most efficiently without a specific address structure. Route summarization will operate efficiently in a hierarchical network without a hierarchical addressing scheme. A hierarchical addressing structure can simplify network management and improve scalability. An effective hierarchical addressing scheme must begin with a classful network at the distribution layer.
23	Refer to the exhibit. All networks that are shown have a /24 prefix. Assuming that all routes have been discovered by all routers in the network, which address will successfully summarize only the networks that are shown? 192.168.8.0/21 192.168.8.0/24 192.168.16.0/20 192.168.16.0/21 192.168.16.0/24